Hello I would like to understand a few things, starting with the real risk of HIV considering the following:
1. Proper use of condom.
2. condom didn’t break or slipped
3. Penetration lasted less than 90 seconds
4. Other person claims to be clean but have no way of verifying
5. I am circumcised
Why are condoms not 100% effective? Is it because there is a chance of it breaking or people not using it properly? If a condom is properly used then it should be effective?
I am aware that the risk per unprotected exposure for vaginal sex is 0.04% around 4 in 10000 exposures, and that circumcision decreases risk 50-60% and use of condoms is 98% effective, so how does the cumulative risk work? If exposure unprotected is 0.04 and circumcision lowers that by 50-60% and condom decreases by 98% then what is the real risk?